A new thread on Reserves

Dear all
presently I want to know if Volume in Place are calculated by praobabilitic method, then is there any point in again calculating the reserves with attached probabilities?

regards

You did not specify, if the volume in place is a speculated estimate, if it is, that is if the well is yet to produce from the reservoir, then you use probabilistic approacch to calculate. Hence your best bet is the P50 estimate.

This paper nicely shows how to do this

[URL="http://www.pdgm.com/_pdf/ART.2008.11.Uncertainty.PDF"]Paper[/URL]

Dear Shakespear,
I think in every question you have a solution with supporting documents.
Thanks

Thanks for the kind words. :)

Thanks for the paper, Shakespear

Thanks for the paper, Shakespear.

Hi Shakespear, do you have tutorial Crystall Ball and data. I need to practice it.
Thanks in advance!

Nope, sorry :o

But try this,

Enter this

"Crystal Ball"

into here

[url]http://www.scribd.com/[/url]

[url]http://www.4shared.com/[/url] use option to look for zip or text files

[url]http://www.pdf-search-engine.com/[/url]

Dear Shakespare, dipak-m and cappy
Thanks, for the reply.
Additinally I have one more question. When reserves are calculated based on historical data like decline curve and based on production analysis data like WOR VS CUM PRODUCTION. It is my understanding that reserves based on these data/method should be categorised as P90. But I have seen cases where this resrves have been categorised as P50 specilly in cases where some investment decision was wanted. [B]Please give your views[/B]. reservoirs have already produced more than 10 % of originally stipulated P50 Oil in Place.

Aquil